980 Questions/Answers to the NHIE....Free!

Are you dealing with a state legislature that might be seriously considering the NHIE as an entrance test for home inspectors?

Have your favorite congressman email me and I will send him 980 questions and answers to the NHIE that was recently sent to me, as a free bonus, when I bought some practice questions for the ICC exam.

I can prove to anyone who needs proof that the test has been compromised and that it…and its answers…are for sale on eBay.

I will not pass them on to other inspectors, presently, as I consider the ethical ramifications. I will, however, help you convey to your state that this test is a meaningless tool.

Jim,
I understand. After you have considered the ramifications, should you choose to make them available, I would appreciate a copy.

I find it very educational to review questions, research and find answers, then compare them to a results sheet that the question writer has prepared. For years I have used that technique when attemping to educate myself, and review knowledge, and it has worked well for me. Where such material is available.

(Wouldn’t publish it, and wouldn’t use it to cheat. Just learn.)

PS. Ask your son-in law (I belive that is who you said was a realtor…) about the pre-licensing courses that are offered for Real Estate agents. Pretty much the whole course is test prep, with sample questions.

So much for licensing determining competency.

Jim, the NHIE is still good as a memory test of trivial facts related to homes, no?

Heating - Cooling

  1. Which of the following is not an automatic safety control?
    a. limit switch
    b. thermostat.
    c. a spillage switch.
    d. thermocouple.
    e. flame sensor.
  2. Which of the following is not a method of heat transfer?
    a. conduction.
    b. induction.
    c. convection.
    d. radiation.
    e. convective loops.
  3. The high limit setting for a forced air gas furnace is typically:
    a. 150 degrees Fahrenheit.
    b. 200 degrees Fahrenheit.
    c. 250 degrees Fahrenheit.
    d. 300 degrees Fahrenheit.
    e. 350 degrees Fahrenheit.
  4. Off-cycle losses on a conventional gas-fired furnace waste:
    a. 5% of the heat generated.
    b. 10% of the heat generated.
    c. 20 % of the heat generated.
    d. 30% of the heat generated.
    e. 40% of the heat generated.
  5. Natural gabs burners can have several different draft mechanisms. All of the following are possible, except
    a. natural draft.
    b. gravity venting.
    c. induced draft.
    d. reverse draft.
    e. forced draft.
  6. Piping in boiler systems is rarely made from:
    a. black steel.
    b. polybutylene.
    c. cross-linked polyethylene.
    d. galvanized steel.
    e. copper.
  7. The pressure-reducing valve:
    a. reduces plumbing water pressure to boiler pressure.
    b. reduces boiler water pressure to plumbing pressure.
    c. reduces the pressure in the radiator to atmospheric pressure.
    d. prevents accumulation of on in the top of the radiator.
    e. prevents overheating.
  8. Boiler water should not be drained in the summer because:
    a. it is a nuisance to refill in the fall.
    b. fresh water will cause system corrosion.
    c. fresh water lowers the system response time.
    d. fresh water lowers the system efficiency.
    e. fresh water can cause the pressure relief valve to leak.
  9. Typical water pressure at a boiler at rest in a two-story house is:
    a. 1-5 psi
    b. 5-10 psi
    c. 10-15 psi
    d. 15-20 psi
    e. 20-25 psi
  10. The most difficult design problems on high-efficiency boilers is:
    a. the return water temperature is too hot.
    b. the return water temperature is too cold.
    c. the circulator needs to be changed.
    d. the new boiler operated at a higher pressure.
    e. the chimney is no longer used.
  11. In most cases chimney deterioration is caused by:
    a. water/moisture caused by condensation
    b. wind
    c. improper height
    d. nesting animals
  12. The three major components of a fossil fuel forced air furnace are:
    a. heat exchanger, burner, blower
    b. return air, combustion air, and vent system
    c. plenum, blower, register
    d. heating ducts, hot air vent and plenum box
  13. The function of a fan/limit switch is to:
    a. limit the speed of fan and motor
    b. measure and control the air flow over the heat exchanger
    c. limit the air flow through the unit
    d. control when the fan comes on or off and shut off to the burners if the furnace overheats
  14. In a hydronic system, the normal operating pressure is:
    a. 30-40 psi
    b. 12-25 psi
    c. 3-5 psi
    d. 22-25 psi
  15. The Hartford loop in a steam system:
    a. automatically maintains the water level
    b. is an equalizer that insures that pressures are equal above and below the water line in the equipment
    c. precludes siphon action if the unit develops a leak
    d. all of the above
  16. The most likely area to find a crack or hole in the heat exchanger is:
    a. in the top of the heat exchanger
    b. along the rear seams
    c. in front, behind the heat shield
    d. along the lower section where the flames are
  17. A good sign the there is a crack or hole in the heat exchanger is:
    a. irregular flame pattern when the blower is on
    b. severe rusting of the heat exchanger
    c. strange smells at the register
    d. all of the above
  18. A furnace has a pilot/thermocouple set up. What is the safety feature that shuts down the furnace?
    a. thermocouple
    b. pilot
    c. gas valve
    d. none of the above
  19. Where will you find a drip leg on a gas heating unit?
    a. on the condensate line
    b. where the gas line meets the heating unit
    c. there is none
  20. A house that you are inspection has an unlit pilot light. What is your requirement as an ASHI inspector?
    a. light the pilot
    b. come back and re-inspect after someone else has lighted the pilot
    c. report that the pilot was out
    d. none of the above
  21. During a heating season, the outside coil will go into a defrost cycle every ninety minutes and last for:
    a. 10 minutes
    b. 15 minutes
    c. 20 minutes
  22. Heat strips are measured in KW. Each strip is equal to approximately:
    a. 5 KW
    b. 10 KW
    c. 30 KW
  23. The basic minimum distance a flue must extend above a roof or any portion at the building extending upward at a angle greater then 45 degrees is:
    a. 1-2 feet
    b. 2-4 feet
    c. 2-5 feet
    d. 3-4 feet
  24. A fairly common reason for air flow in a forced air furnace is:
    a. dirty air filter
    b. poor fan operation
    c. large hole in the heat exchanger
    d. a & b
  25. The function of a heat anticipator is:
    a. to help adjust the thermostat controls for ease of operation
    b. to cause the thermostat to turn off a few degrees below the setting to prevent over heating of the heat exchanger.
    c. to assist the furnace blower
  26. You observe a single wall vent 2" from wood. How would you report:
    a. safety hazard
    b. monitor
    c. contact experts
  27. A hydronic or forced circulating system is:
    a. an open system subject to atmospheric pressure
    b. closed to the atmosphere and under pressure
    c. closed system in which only the supply is under pressure
    d. an antiquated way of heating residential structure
  28. Chimney should generally be installed:
    a. 6" higher than anything within 10’
    b. 18" higher than anything within 10’
    c. 2’ higher than anything within 10’
    3- higher than anything within 10’
  29. When converting from natural gas to propane gas.
    a. the orifice must be large
    b. the orifice plays no role
    c. the orifice must be smaller
    d. none of the above
  30. If natural gas line is changed to LP, you need
    a. smaller orifice
    b. large orifice
    c. to change valve assembly
    d. do nothing
    when converting from natural gas to LP:
  31. The devices used to provide ignition for oil and gas-fired systems are:
    Thermostat controls, dampers and emergency shut offs
    b. blower, motor, fan and limit switches
    c. emergency flashing lights and low limit switches
    d. pilot and sensing devices
  32. The purpose of the pressure relief valve in a hydronic heating system is to:
    a. to relieve high temperatures in a forced air system
    b. to prevent back low in the water system
    c. to prevent pressure with the system from exceeding a pre-set limit of 30 psi
    d. to release pressure in the heat exchanger system
  33. How many heat transfer coil do conventional air-cooled central air conditioning systems have?
    a. none
    b. one
    c. two
    d. three
    e. five
  34. In the evaporator coil of an air-cooled air conditioner:
    a. Freon heats up as it changes from a liquid to a gas
    b. Freon cools as it changes from a gas to a liquid
    c. Freon cools as it changes from a liquid to a gas
    d. Freon changes from a cool gas to a warm gas
    e. Freon changes from a warm liquid to a cool liquid
  35. Why does an air conditioner compressor often not start up for five minutes or so if it has been shut off for just a few seconds?
    a. to allow the electrical current time to stop flowing in all parts of the circuit
    b. to allow the pressures on the suction and discharge side of the compressor to equalize to equalize
    c. to allow the Freon on the suction side of the compressor to heat up
    d. To allow the Freon on the discharge side of the compressor to cool down
    e. to avoid damaging the evaporator coil
  36. The implications of a dirty evaporator coil in a split-system air conditioner could be any of the following except for one. Which does not apply?
    a. Airflow is restricted.
    b. Heat transfer is inhibited.
    c. Cooling is inadequate.
    d. The compressor may be damaged trying to pump a liquid rather than gas.
    e. The condenser coil may ice up and be damaged.
  37. The ideal location for a return grill on an air conditioning system is:
    a. at or near floor level on an outside wall
    b. at or near floor level on an interior wall
    c. at or near ceiling level on an exterior wall
    d. at or near ceiling level on an interior wall
    e. in the floor near the midpoint of the room
  38. Which of the following statements is true?
    a. When a heat pump is in the cooling mode, the indoor coil is the condenser.
    b. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the condensate line should be producing at least one quart of water every two hours.
    c. When a heat pump is in the cooling mode, the outdoor coil is the evaporator
    d. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the Emergency Heat switch should be activated
    e. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the indoor coil is in the condenser
  39. Which of the following components would be found on a heat pump but not on a central air conditioning system?
    a. compressor
    b. expansion device
    c. reversing valve
    d. indoor coil
    e. outdoor coil
  40. Weak airflow on forced-air systems at the registers is caused by all of these: except
    a. dirty filter
    b. a clogged indoor coil
    c. a slipping fan belt on the fan motor
    d. dirt on the fan blades
    e. low refrigerant charge
  41. If we operate a heat pump in the cooling mode, when the temperature is t low, we:
    a. maximize the efficiency
    b. minimize the efficiency
    c. extend the life of the unit
    d. risk damaging the compressor
    e. overload the crankcase heater
  42. A fireplace should not share a chimney flue with:
    a. another fireplace
    b. a furnace
    c. another wood stove
    d. all of the above
  43. From an energy efficiency standpoint, which is the least efficient appliance?
    a. wood stoves.
    b. wood-burning fireplaces.
    c. gas furnaces.
    d. oil furnaces.
  44. A wood stove should have a pad under it that prevents sparks or embers from igniting a combustible floor. How far should this pad extend out in front of the stove?
    a. 12 inches
    b. 16 inches
    c. 18 inches
    d. 20 inches
    e. 24 inches
  45. Common and dangerous cracks in the hearth of a wood-burning fireplace are often found:
    a. at the back of the hearth.
    b. at the side of the hearth.
    c. between the hearth and hearth extension.
    d. at the front of the hearth extension.
    e. at the sides of the hearth extension.
  46. A 20 kilowatt electric furnace has an output BTU/hr capacity of roughly:
    a. 48,000 BTU per hour
    b. 68,000 BTU per hour
    c. 88,000 TU per hour
    d. 108,000 BTU per hour
    e. 118,000 BTU per hour
  47. Why don’t we want electrical receptacles located above heaters?
    a. the circuit is likely to be overloaded
    b. the fuse is likely to be undersized
    c. an electrical cord resting on a heater poses a fire hazard
    d. whatever is plugged into the receptacle will obstruct the heater
    e. the receptacle will be to hot to touch when plugging in an appliance
  48. The characteristics of a good chimney include all of the following, except:
    a. enhance the draft of appliances.
    b. prevent exhaust gases from entering the house.
    c. support their own weight.
    d. provide combustion air.
    e. help keep water out of the house.
  49. In masonry chimneys, adjacent flues are usually separated by:
    a. a clay tile liner.
    b. an air space.
    c. a stainless steel divider.
    d. a wythe of brick.
    e. non-combustible material.
  50. B vents:
    a. are used with oil.
    b. are used with wood stoves.
    c. are used with wood fireplaces.
    d. are used with oil and gas appliances.
    e. are used with gas appliances.
  51. How many heat transfer coil do conventional air-cooled central air conditioning systems have?
    a. none
    b. one
    c. two
    d. three
    e. five
  52. In the evaporator coil of an air-cooled air conditioner:
    a. Freon heats up as it changes from a liquid to a gas
    b. Freon cools as it changes from a gas to a liquid
    c. Freon cools as it changes from a liquid to a gas
    d. Freon changes from a cool gas to a warm gas
    e. Freon changes from a warm liquid to a cool liquid
  53. Why does an air conditioner compressor often not start up for five minutes or so if it has been shut off for just a few seconds?
    a. to allow the electrical current time to stop flowing in all parts of the circuit
    b. to allow the pressures on the suction and discharge side of the compressor to equalize to equalize
    c. to allow the Freon on the suction side of the compressor to heat up
    d. To allow the Freon on the discharge side of the compressor to cool down
    e. to avoid damaging the evaporator coil
  54. The implications of a dirty evaporator coil in a split-system air conditioner could be any of the following except for one. Which does not apply?
    a. Airflow is restricted.
    b. Heat transfer is inhibited.
    c. Cooling is inadequate.
    d. The compressor may be damaged trying to pump a liquid rather than gas.
    e. The condenser coil may ice up and be damaged.
  55. The ideal location for a return grill on an air conditioning system is:
    a. at or near floor level on an outside wall
    b. at or near floor level on an interior wall
    c. at or near ceiling level on an exterior wall
    d. at or near ceiling level on an interior wall
    e. in the floor near the midpoint of the room
  56. Which of the following statements is true?
    a. When a heat pump is in the cooling mode, the indoor coil is the condenser.
    b. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the condensate line should be producing at least one quart of water every two hours.
    c. When a heat pump is in the cooling mode, the outdoor coil is the evaporator
    d. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the Emergency Heat switch should be activated
    e. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the indoor coil is in the condenser
  57. Which of the following components would be found on a heat pump but not on a central air conditioning system?
    a. compressor
    b. expansion device
    c. reversing valve
    d. indoor coil
    e. outdoor coil
  58. Weak airflow on forced-air systems at the registers is caused by all of these: except
    a. dirty filter
    b. a clogged indoor coil
    c. a slipping fan belt on the fan motor
    d. dirt on the fan blades
    e. low refrigerant charge
  59. If we operate a heat pump in the cooling mode, when the temperature is t low, we:
    a. maximize the efficiency
    b. minimize the efficiency
    c. extend the life of the unit
    d. risk damaging the compressor
    e. overload the crankcase heater
  60. Type B vent is:
    a. single wall
    b. double wall
    c. triple wall
    d. any of the above
  61. Type A vent is used for:
    a. fireplaces
    b. furnaces
    c. wood burning stove
  62. A new gas furnace has 2 pairs of rods running the length of the burners. They are:
    a. providing stability during shipping
    b. reducing nitrate oxide present in the atmosphere
    c. helping prevent damage to the heat exchanger
    d. debris that has fallen into the furnace
  63. What is the clearance for combustibles for a single-wall furnace vent.
    a. 18"
    b. 9"
    c. 6"
    d. 8"
  64. What is the proper strapping requirement for ductwork:
    a. 6’
    b. 4’
    c. 12’
    d. not specified
  65. What was added to furnaces after 1980?
    a. high limit switch
    b. fan blower switch
    c. thermocouple
    d. two heat exchangers
  66. When converting from natural gas to LP:
    a.need more combustion air
    b. need less combustion air
    c. same amount of combustion needed
    d. none of the above
  67. Pipes running from oil storage tank to furnace:
    a. must be protected
    b. have to be buried in concrete floor
    c. can never be buried in concrete floor
    d. can run across top of floor
  68. Two small copper pipes going through a basement wall indicates:
    a. water pipes
    b. possible underground storage tank
    c. support for walls
    d. none of the above
  69. Plaster cracks over a chimney breast are usually caused by:
    changing materials
    b. settlement of the chimney
    c. heat
    d. changing of the humidity from front to back
  70. Common temperature at registers with old furnace:
    a. 110-130
    b.130-150
    c. 150
    d. 160
  71. An inspector enters a vacant home to inspect it and notices a strong smell of gas. What should he do?
    a. Open the windows and inspect the home
    b. investigate the smell and attempt to repair it
    c. vacate the home and call all appropriate people
  72. You see a return air register in the side of the furnace:
    a. say nothing
    b. needed
    c. can cause by-product fumes to feed into supply air
    d. have no effect on operation
  73. Mid-efficiency furnace.1. How many heat transfer coil do conventional air-cooled central air conditioning systems have?
    a. none
    b. one
    c. two
    d. three
    e. five
  74. In the evaporator coil of an air-cooled air conditioner:
    a. Freon heats up as it changes from a liquid to a gas
    b. Freon cools as it changes from a gas to a liquid
    c. Freon cools as it changes from a liquid to a gas
    d. Freon changes from a cool gas to a warm gas
    e. Freon changes from a warm liquid to a cool liquid
  75. Why does an air conditioner compressor often not start up for five minutes or so if it has been shut off for just a few seconds?
    a. to allow the electrical current time to stop flowing in all parts of the circuit
    b. to allow the pressures on the suction and discharge side of the compressor to equalize to equalize
    c. to allow the Freon on the suction side of the compressor to heat up
    d. To allow the Freon on the discharge side of the compressor to cool down
    e. to avoid damaging the evaporator coil
  76. The implications of a dirty evaporator coil in a split-system air conditioner could be any of the following except for one. Which does not apply?
    a. Airflow is restricted.
    b. Heat transfer is inhibited.
    c. Cooling is inadequate.
    d. The compressor may be damaged trying to pump a liquid rather than gas.
    e. The condenser coil may ice up and be damaged.
  77. The ideal location for a return grill on an air conditioning system is:
    a. at or near floor level on an outside wall
    b. at or near floor level on an interior wall
    c. at or near ceiling level on an exterior wall
    d. at or near ceiling level on an interior wall
    e. in the floor near the midpoint of the room
  78. Which of the following statements is true?
    a. When a heat pump is in the cooling mode, the indoor coil is the condenser.
    b. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the condensate line should be producing at least one quart of water every two hours.
    c. When a heat pump is in the cooling mode, the outdoor coil is the evaporator
    d. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the Emergency Heat switch should be activated
    e. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the indoor coil is in the condenser
  79. Which of the following components would be found on a heat pump but not on a central air conditioning system?
    a. compressor
    b. expansion device
    c. reversing valve
    d. indoor coil
    e. outdoor coil
  80. Weak airflow on forced-air systems at the registers is caused by all of these: except
    a. dirty filter
    b. a clogged indoor coil
    c. a slipping fan belt on the fan motor
    d. dirt on the fan blades
    e. low refrigerant charge
  81. If we operate a heat pump in the cooling mode, when the temperature is t low, we:
    a. maximize the efficiency
    b. minimize the efficiency
    c. extend the life of the unit
    d. risk damaging the compressor
    e. overload the crankcase heater
  82. A Type L flue is rated for
    a. gas
    b. oil
    c. wood
    d. all
  83. A furnace has a pilot, thermocouple set up. What shuts down the furnace:
    a. thermocouple
    b. pilot
    c. gas valve
    d. burners
  84. Three major components of a fossil fueled forced air furnace are:
    a. plenum, blower, register
    b. return air, combustion air, vent system
    c. heat exchanger, burner, blower
    d. heating ducts, hot air venting system, plenum
  85. Function of a fan/limit switch is to:
    a. limit the speed of the fan and motor
    b. control when fan comes on or off and shut off the burner if furnace overheats
    c. measure and control the air flow over the heat exchanger
    d. limit the air flow through the unit
  86. The function of the barometric damper is to:
    a. prevent back drafting
    b. provide draft regulation
    c. coal flue
    d. provide combustion air
  87. You notice isolators on the ductwork during an inspection. What are they for:
    a. to reduce vibration from motor
    b. to reduce noise in duct work
    c. allow for expansion
    d. decoration
  88. What determines the size of a fireplace flue.
    a. opening of fireplace
    b. area of fire box
    c. number of fireplaces vented into the flue
    d. type of house
  89. In a steam heating system, a normal operating pressure is:
    30 psi
    b. 12-20 psi
    c. 3-5 psi
    d. 22-25
  90. In a older home a forced hot air furnace is replaced by a heat pump, the heat coming out of the register is:
    a. hotter
    b. cooler
    c. same
    d. depends on the air duct layout
  91. You inspect a home with a wood stove 18" from the wall. You notice that the unit does not have a UL approved sticker. You should tell client:
    a. the stove has to go
    b. the stove is too close to the wall
    c. do not buy the house
    d. everything is OK
  92. If you have a gas furnace and a gas water heater in the basement and a gas furnace in the attic, how many flues do you need for proper venting.
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
  93. If the furnace lower stops running after the burners have shut off and then the blower turns back on without the burners on-what is the most likely situation:
    a. bad thermocouple
    b. bad gas valve
    c. fan/limit control switch does not operate properly
    d. fan/motor does not work properly
  94. What is the typical clearance to combustibles for a wall furnace?
    a. 1"
    b. 2"
    c. 4"
    d. 6"
  95. The clearance from a wall furnace to the ceiling is:
    a. 8"
    b. 12"
    c. 18"
    d. 24"
  96. The clearance from a wall furnace to the nearest wall is:
    a. 6"
    b. 8"
    c. 12"
    d. 16"
  97. The two main components of an air-conditioning system are:
    a. fan and coil
    b. ductwork and expansion valve
    c. evaporator unit and the condensing unit
    d. compressor and refrigerant
  98. When inspecting an A/C unit, you find supply air to be 64F and the return air to be 80F, how would you report?
    a. change filter
    b. OK
    c. call technician
    d. none of the above
  99. What does an A/C compressor do?
    a. pressurize the refrigerant gas in order to raise its temperature
    b. lower temperature of gas
    c. releases heat from the compressor to outside
    d. raises temperature of the liquid
  100. The defrost cycle on a heat pump occurs when the outside temperature is cold, usually at or below:
    a. 50F
    b. 37F
    c. Below 0
    d. none of the above
  101. A heat pump running in the heat mode should:
    a. suction line will be warm to the touch
    b. discharge air from outside coil that is cooler than ambient air
    c. discharge air from inside coil that is between 90F to 105F
    d. all of the above
  102. When a heat pump is installed as a retro-fit into an existing system and the ducts are to small, what will happen?
    a. nothing
    b. unit is starved for air due to poor circulation
    c. over-heat on heating mode
    c. be of no consequence
    d. a & b above
  103. Geothermal heat pumps compared to air-to-air are:
    a. more efficient
    b. do not lose efficiency as outside air temperature drops
    c. 2-3 times more expensive to install
    d. all of the above
  104. A dirty filter can cause:
    a. high compressor ratio and failure of compressor
    b. reduced air flow and tower return air temperature
    c. clogged condensate drain line and condensate flooding
    d. all of the above
  105. A metering device is used to:
    a. keep track of coolant used
    b. measure the energy use
    c. reduce pressure on coolant
  106. In the cooling cycle, the condensing coil is located:
    a. outside
    b. inside
    c. both a & b
  107. The two main components of an air cooled air conditioning system are:
    a. the fan and coil
    b. duct work and expansion unit
    c. evaporator unit and the condenser unit
    d. compressor and refrigerant
  108. In a conventional heat pump the most critical component is the:
    a. compressor
    b. condenser
    c. expansion device
    d. blower fan
  109. In a heat pump cycle, the evaporator is:
    a. outside
    b. inside
    c. either of the above
    d. none of the above
  110. In a typical heat pump operation in the heat mode, the temperature differential at the heat exchanger (supply/return) should be about:
    a. 30F
    b. 5-7F
    c. 15F
    d. 20-22F
  111. A/C unit has 3-ton capacity.
    a. 3000
    b. 6000
    c. 30,000
    d. 36,000
  112. Evaporator coolers are used in areas:
    a. that have dry weather
    b. that have moist weather
    c. all areas
    d. not used for homes
  113. What is the purpose of the accumulator?
    a. keep dirt out of the compressor
    b. keep liquids out of the compressor
    c. record a total of coolant used
  114. During heat pump operation, supplement heat is provided by:
    a. ground loop heat source
    b. electric heat strips
    c. solar panels
  115. A heat pump with a compressor rating of 21.5 amps is approximately:
    a. 2 tons of cooling
    b. 2 1/2 tones of cooling
    c. 3 tons of cooling
  116. When inspecting a heat pump or air conditioner, you find the inside coils condensation drain is connected directly to, or is inside of a sanitary sewer line:
    a. this is OK and you do not report it
    b. this is a health and code concern and it needs to be corrected
    c. this is not right, but such a minor detail that you do not report it
  117. When inspecting a heat pump (only the top bubble is engaged at the thermostat), you take the temperature of the air at the register. The temperature should be
    a. 95F to 100F
    b. 100F to 110F
    c. 115F to 120F
  118. A/C icing on evaporator coil is caused by:
    a. too much air
    b. not enough air
    c. sized wrong
    d. all of the above
  119. Central air is added to an existing furnace. What is required:
    a. larger ductwork
    b. 2 speed fan
    c. smaller ductwork
    d. more registers
  120. Properly balanced ductwork required:
    a. same flow in return and supply
    b. 30% more flow in supply
    c. 30% more flow in return
    d. makes no difference
  121. What is a summer switch:
    a. reversing valve in a heat pump
    b. switch to manually activate a blower in a forced air furnace
    c. pilot shut-off device
    d. switch to change thermostat to activate swamp cooler
  122. A swamp cooler is used in:
    a. dry climate
    b. damp climate
    c. any climate
    d. commercial buildings only
  123. Evaporator cooler:
    a. used in damp climate
    b. has a compressor
    c. has electricity and water to it:
    d. not used on houses
  124. A/C in attic. What is proper way to get rid of condensation:
    a. Put in a vent pipe
    b. drain to vent pipe if no other means exist
    c. use catch pan and pump
    d. second drain line
  125. In a heat pump cooling cycle, the condensing coil is located:
    a. outside
    b. inside
    c. both inside and outside
    d. on top of condenser unit
  126. At what point in an A?C cycle does the liquid turn into gas:
    a. passing through the expansion-coil
    b. coming out of the compressor
    c. coming out of the evaporator coil
    d. coming out of the condensing coil
  127. What is a proper temperature differential across the AC coil?
    a. 15-20 degrees F or 14-22 degrees F
    b. 2-3 degrees F
    c. 30-50 degrees F
    d. 90-100 degrees F
  128. The component of a central air conditioner which produces the condensate is:
    a. the condenser coil
    b. the evaporator coil
    c. the compressor
    d. the expansion valve
    e. the accumulator
  129. Chilled air id sensor than warm air:
    a. true
    b. false
  130. The component of the central air conditioner which releases heat is the:
    a. compressor
    b. condenser coil
    c. evaporator coil
    d. expansion valve
    e. thermostat
  131. The evaporator is located:
    a. usually above the furnace, definitely after the heat exchanger
    b. at the compressor
    c. in the return air ducting
    d. in the garage
    e. below the refrigerator
  132. When a cooling coil or air conditioning unit is located in an attic or over a space, where damage may result from condensate overflow:
    a. the installation is prohibited
    b. a standing overflow and separate drain may be provided in lieu of the separate pan
    c. an additional metal watertight pan shall be installed beneath the cooling coil unit
    d. the diameter of the drain must be two nominal pipe sizes larger than the connection to the pan
    e. either b or c apply
  133. Independent air conditioning systems are often used on houses heated by:
    a. heat pumps
    b, electric baseboard heaters
    c. electric radiant heat
    d. gas forced-air heating
    e. both b and c above
  134. What is the state of the refrigerant when it is cold and hot?
    a. cold=gas/hot=liquid
    b. hot=gas/cold=liquid
    c. hot=liquid/cold=liquid
    d. hot=gas/cold=liquid
    e. any of the above
  135. Below the balance point, a heat pump:
    a. may not be able to generate enough heat to warm the house.
    b. operates more economically
    c. should not be running in heating mode for fear of damaging the compressor
    d. may tip over
    e. both b and c
  136. condensate or waste water may drain to a:
    a. driveway
    b. sidewalk at the entryway
    c. rooftop or ground for irrigation
    d. floor drain or the ground outside
    e. water well
  137. An arrangement of piping or tubing in which vaporized refrigerant is liquefied by removal of heat is a:
    a. compressor
    b. vaporizer
    c. generator
    d. condenser
    e. evaporator
  138. chilled air is ______ to move than warm air.
    a. harder
    b. easier
    c. heavier
    d. lighter
    e. a & c above
  139. The suction line should be insulated:
    a. to prevent condensation
    b. to decrease cooling looses
    c. to prevent line damage
    d. to protect the liquid line
    e. both a and b above
  140. The compressor is located:
    a. in the evaporator
    b. in the furnace
    c. in the condenser
    d. outside in the louvered cabinet
    e. with the humidifier
  141. The function of the compressor is to:
    a. move the refrigerant
    b. compress the refrigerant
    c. compress the condensate
    d. compress the household air
    e. both a and b
  142. The life expectancy of a compressor is typically:
    a. 6-8 years
    b. 10-15 years
    c. 15-20 years
    d. 2 days after the warranty expires
    e. 20-25 years
  143. Overflow from evaporative coolers and condensate from air cooling coils shall be collected and discharged to an:
    a. approved location
    b. roof drain
    c. planter box
    d. holding tank
    e. all of the above
  144. What is the minimum safe temperature in which to operate an air conditioner?
    a. hotter then 100 degrees
    b. hotter than 90 degrees
    c. hotter than 80 degrees
    d. colder than 65 degrees
    e. hotter than 65 degrees
  145. Evaporative coolers:
    a. are effective in dry climates
    b. are also called “swamp coolers”
    c. produce cool, damp air
    d. all of the above
  146. In a water-cooled air conditioning system, the condenser coil is cooled by using:
    a. the swimming pool
    b. the supply plumbing system
    c. the waste plumbing system
    d. a nearby river or stream
    e. both a and d above
  147. The “emergency heat” switch on some thermostats is used:
    a. in case of a gas leak
    b. in case of cool temperatures during the summer
    c. if a temperature increase of 20 degrees or more is required in a short period of time
    d. to bypass the heat pump and rely solely on heat from the supplemental source
    e. when the refrigerant levels get too low
  148. The refrigerant is altered from gas to liquid at the:
    a. evaporator
    b. compressor
    c. condenser
    d. furnace
    e. suction line
  149. When an air conditioner is added to an existing furnace system:
    a. new filters must be installed
    b. the air ducts are sometimes too small
    c. the blower may need changing
    d. a new thermostat may be needed
    e. b, c, and d above
  150. Evaporative coolers supported directly by the ground:
    shall be isolated from the ground
    b. shall be on a level concrete slab
    c. shall be at least 3" above adjacent grade
    d. shall be at least 6" above adjacent grade
    e. e a, b, c above
  151. Central air conditioning makes the indoor climate more comfortable by:
    a. increasing humidity levels
    b. reducing humidity levels
    c. increasing air circulation
    d. reducing interior air temperature
    e. both b and d
  152. Condensate drains for air conditioners:
    a. should be visible at both ends
    b. should have a trap in them
    c. are typically plastic piping
    d. should drain to the exterior or other approved locations
    e. all of the above
  153. An air conditioner with a reversing valve is called:
    a. a Hartford loop
    b. a heat exchanger
    c. a handy mans nightmare
    d. a heat pump
    e. a swamp cooler
  154. What is required for a 3 zone heating system:
    a. 3 return registers
    b. 3 boilers
    c. 3 thermostats
    d. relays
    e. 3 radiators
  155. Floor furnaces shall be
    a. closer than 6 inches to the ground
    b. installed on a concrete slab on grade
    c. supported independently of the furnace floor grill
    d. are not termed “gravity flow” in the mechanical code
    e. can be supported on masonry blocks
  156. In a garage, the burner flame should be _____ inches above the floor
    a. 6
    b. 10
    c. 12
    d. 16
    e. 18
  157. What devices distribute the heat in the rooms in a hydronic system?
    a. radiators
    b. con vectors
    c. supply grills
    d. registers
    e. a and b above
  158. What is the purpose of the draft hood (diverter) on a gas furnace?
    a. to heat the vent flue
    b. to provide combustion air
    c. to dilute combustion air
    d. to dilute combustion gases and cool them
    e. to allow secondary air to help the combustion by products vent to the exterior
    f. d and e above
  159. What is the purpose of the barometric damper on an oil furnace?
    a. to reduce secondary air flow through the combustion chamber and provide draft air
    b. to provide combustion air
    c. to heat the garage area
    d. to heat the vent pipe
    e. all of the above
  160. The best method for a home inspector to check a furnace heat exchanger is to:
    a. remove the plenum and blower
    b. watch for flame deflection when the blower comes on the visual observation
    c. open the plenum and inject tracer gas in the burner compartment
    d. check the registers for air velocity
    e. all of the above
  161. Every fuel burning unit heater, floor furnace or wall furnace is required to have a:
    a. draft damper
    b. volume damper
    e. vent
    d. high heat alarm
    e. low heat alarm
  162. What is the probable cause of back drafting of a furnace?
    a. blocked flue
    b. faulty heat exchanger
    c. broken high limit switch
    d. micro switch in wrong location
    e. excessive combustion air
  163. Pounds per square inch gauge is the measurement for
    a. water temperature
    b. pressure
    c. oiler temperature
    d. water column
    e. return air
  164. Air starved gas fires can produce
    a. efflorescence
    b. carbon monoxide
    c. carbon dioxide
    d. heat
    e. all of the above
  165. To prevent water from siphoning out of the boiler if a return line springs a leak, what is installed on the equalizer at a point 2 inches below the steam boiler water level?
    a. low water cut-off
    b. a check valve
    c. a Hartford loop
    d. a TPR valve
    e. a thermostat
  166. A unitary 10,000 BTU room gas heater
    a. may be vented to the attic
    b. is too small to require venting
    c. should warm up the room in about 30 minutes
    d. must be vented to the exterior
  167. The most important condenser consideration is
    a. nothing should prevent air entering the cabinet or leaving the fan (blower)
    b. the condenser should be located on the shady side of the house
    c. the condenser should be located on the sunny side of the house
    d. the fan axis should be vertical
    e. none of the above
  168. Water cooled condensers
    a. often have short-cycling compressors
    b.depend on both water temperature and pressure
    c. must be located outside in case of leakage
    d. should discharge the warm water into the sewer or waste system
  169. A standard safety control for a warm air system is:
    a. thermostat
    b. a fan switch
    c. a limit switch
    d. a “summer” switch
  170. How can an inspector know that a heating system is fueled by oil?
    a. presence of a sight glass
    b. pressure/temp gauge
    c. condensate line
    d. barometric damper
  171. In converting kilowatts (kw) to BTU’s for capacity rating, 1 kw is equivalent to
    a. 1210 BTU
    b. 450 BTU
    c. 6813 BTU
    d. 3412 BTU
    e. 5817 BTU
  172. If the bypass duct on a standard drum-type humidifier is not closed during cooling season
    a. the evaporator coil may ice up
    b. airflow at the registers will be weak
    c. the electronic air cleaner may be bypassed
    d. the thermostat may shut the unit off prematurely
  173. Which of the following is the most critical component of a forced-air furnace?
    a. blower and motor
    b. gas valve
    c. heat exchanger
    d. thermostat
    e. gas burner
  174. Which of the following is not found on an open hot water heating system?
    a. heat exchanger
    b. expansion tank
    c. burner
    d. circulating pump
    e. high temperature limit
  175. Roughly, how much ventilation (for combustion air) should be provided for a conventional gas furnace?
    a. one square foot per 1,000 BTU’s
    b. two square inches per 1,000 BTU’s
    c. two square feet
    d. none is required on a gas furnace
    e. two square inches per 100 BTU’s
  176. The following deice provides ignition of the pilot light:
    a. vent damper
    b. thermocouple
    c. spark plug
    d. barometric damper
    e. primary control
  177. What is a primary control?
    a. thermostat
    b. power switch for furnace (typically near basement stairs).
    c. safety device which senses temperature in exhaust flue
    d. tan/limit switch
    e. gas valve
  178. The exhaust flue on a conventional gas furnace should have a slope of at least:
    a. 1/4 inch per foot
    b. 1/2 inch per foot
    c. 3/4 inch per foot
    d. 1 inch per foot
  179. The standard safety control for a warm air system is
    a. a thermostat
    b. a fan switch
    c. a limit switch
    d. a summer switch
  180. In a garage, how far above ground should the flame of a heating unit or water beater be?
    a. 6 inches
    b. 12 inches
    c. 18 inches
    d. 24 inches
  181. Fuel burning forced warm air consists of
    a. combustion chamber
    b. heat exchanger and return ducting
    e. fan with filter
    d. supply
    e. all of the above
  182. Gas burners are lit by
    a. a pilot flame
    b. an electronic igniter
    c. a surface igniter
    d. any of the above
  183. A fireplace hearth should extend beyond the front of the fireplace by at least:
    a. 8 inches
    b. 12 inches
    c. 16 inches
    d. 24 inches
  184. Chilled air is denser than warm air.
    a. true
    b. false
  185. Air conditioning equipment should not be operated when the ambient temperature is below:
    a. 32 degrees
    b. 45 degrees
    c. 60 degrees
    d. 65 degrees
  186. The evaporator is:
    a. the system component that cools and dehumidifies the house air
    b. the component that changes the refrigerant from a liquid to a gas
    c. usually downstream of the air handler
    d. all of the above
  187. A heat pump
    a. is able to heat or cool a house
    b. can be instantly changed from one operating mode to the other
    c. uses a reversing valve to reverse the refrigerant flow in the piping
    d. can operate efficiently at temperatures below about 45 degrees
    e. a and c above
  188. The component of a central air conditioner which produces condensate is"
    a. the condenser coil
    b. the evaporator coil
    c. the compressor
    d. the expansion valve
  189. The component of a central air conditioner which releases heat is the
    a. move the refrigerant
    b. compress the refrigerant
    c. compress the condensate
    d. compress the household air
    e. a and b above
  190. As a general rule of thumb, in moderate climates, most houses have systems sized at one ton cooling for every:
    a. 50-100 square feet
    b. 450-600 square feet
    c. 70-1000 square feet
    d. 1500-2000 square feet
  191. A mantle of combustible material on a fireplace projects 1 1/2 inch, how much clearance is needed from the fireplace opening?
    a. 6 inches
    b. 8 inches
    c. 16 inches
    d. 12 inches
  192. A fireplace with an opening of less than 6 square feet requires a hearth depth of _____ inches and _____ inches clearance from each side.
    a. 16.8
    b. 20.12
    c. 18.10
    d. none of the above
  193. The disconnect for electrical equipment (A/C unit) must be within sight but no more then _____ feet from the unit.
    a. 15
    b. 18
    c. 25
    d. 50
  194. what is the purpose of a smoke shelf in a masonry chimney?
    a. keeps more heat in the flue which means the fireplace gives off more heat
    b. eliminates the need for a damper
    c. helps prevent downdrafts from affecting the fire
    d. makes ash clean out easier
    e. provides a convenient place for wood storage
  195. When can a wood stove and central heating unit share the same chimney?
    a. If the heating system has an automatic pilot light
    b. If the BTU output is the same for both units
    c. if the cross-sectional area of the stove flue is less than that of the heating system
    d. if there is an automatic damper on the heating unit
    e. never, such an arrangement is not acceptable
  196. Which one of the following is most likely to indicate a potentially significant concern with an old brick chimney?
    a. damaged flashing
    b. no cricket
    c. damaged chimney cap
    d. no flue liner
    e. no ash pit
  197. A space between a chimney and the side of the house is least likely to indicate a significant concern if:
    a. the flashing has pulled away with the chimney movement
    b.the gap at the top is more than twice that at the bottom
    c. the gap at the bottom is less than twice the top
    d. it is “V” shaped and has been recently grouted
    e. there is a uniform 1 inch gap from top to bottom
  198. Which one of the following has the least significance for safe use of a fireplace?
    a. cracked fire brick
    b. loose/damaged mortar in fire box
    c. gap between fire box and face of fireplace
    d. missing mortar in throat
    e. no damper
  199. A wood stove:
    a. should have an insulated flue if run through an attic area
    b. doesn’t require regular cleaning if hardwood is used
    c. can be installed over wool carpeting if legs are on bricks
    d. can be installed with the flue running horizontal between adjacent rooms
    e. can be installed within six inches of a frame wall if there is a four inch brick facing on the wall with 2 inch clearance to the stove
  200. Which one of the following is not included in a conventional forced hot water heating system?
    a. relief valve
    b. circulator pump
    c. sight glass
    d. aquastat
    e. expansion tank
  201. What condition is not a common indication of the possible failure of a heat exchanger?
    a. “dancing” burner flames
    b. concentrated areas of metal rust and flaking
    c. a damaged thermocouple
    d. a bulge in the wall of the heat exchanger
    e a “hot spot” on the external casing of the unit
  202. A relief valve on a hot water boiler should activate at what pressure?
    a. 10 psi
    b. 20 psi
    c. 30 psi
    d. 40 psi
    e. 50 psi
  203. The optimum distribution design for a forced hot air heating system in a house with slab construction would be:
    a. interior wall supply, interior wall return
    b. ceiling supply, floor return.
    c. high supply, high return
    d. central ceiling return, high interior wall supply
    e. exterior wall supply, interior wall return
  204. Combustion air provisions are most likely to be inadequate when:
    a. there is a forced draft system
    b. the heating unit is installed in a closet
    c. the unit is installed in a vented attic
    d. the combustion chamber has a fire brick liner
    e. the heating unit has PVC vent/piping
  205. A high pressure reading for a hot water boiler may indicate:
    a. faulty gauge
    b. expansion tank problem
    c. leakage of the immersion coils
    d. faulty pressure reducing valve
    e. all of the above
  206. Which of the following can lead to premature heat exchanger failed?
    a. humidifier leakage
    b. improper burner adjustment
    c. poor draft
    d. insufficient air flow over exchanger
    e. all of the above
  207. A system that extracts heat from air, water or the ground and moves it to the interior for heating is a :
    a. radiant convection heater
    b. heat exchanger
    c. heat pump
    d. evaporator system
    e. swamp heater
  208. In the normal cycling of a conventional furnace, at what temperature (degrees F) would the fan normally start operating, the burner shut down at high limit: and the fan shut off?
    a. 125, 75, 150
    b. 150,200, 100
    c. 175,125, 225
    d. 200,150,250
    e. 120,300,150
  209. A high efficiency (87 + %) gas fired furnace is likely to have a:
    a. PVC or CPVC exhaust vent
    b. galvanized exhaust
    c. a low water cutoff
    d. an atmospheric burner
    e. reversing valve
  210. What component must be installed in a steam heating system?
    a. aquastat
    b. circulating pump
    c. temperature-pressure relief valve
    d. fan-limit control
    e.low water cut-off
  211. Radiant hot water heating systems:
    a. do not require pipes
    b.can be installed using plastic piping
    c. rarely ever leak
    d. operate at very high pressures and temperatures
    e. can’t be installed in slab homes
  212. Which one of the following is a common cause for oil burner “purr-back”
    a. flame retention
    b. oxidation
    c. blue flame
    d. flame speed
    e. delayed ignition
  213. What type heating system commonly utilizes zone valves for independent heating of areas of a house?
    a. radiant electric
    b. forced warm air
    c. steam
    d. electric baseboard
    e. forced hot water
  214. Induced draft heating system designs utilize an electric powered fan to:
    a. ventilate the furnace room
    b. slow the rate of house air movement through a heat exchanger
    c. increase the rate of flue gases through a heat exchanger
    d. distribute heated air through two inch duct ductwork
    e. cmpensate for high flue temperatures
  215. If an old oil fired furnace is converted to a conventional mid-efficiency natural gas fired furnace:
    a. a new chimney must be constructed
    b. the existing chimney should be cleaned and checked for integrity and suitability for new system
    c. new distribution ductwork must always be installed
    d. the oil piping, but not oil tank, can be reused
    e. the chimney must be relined with an eight inch polybutlene flue
  216. A thermocouple will prevent a gas valve from:
    a. overheating if there is inadequate combustion air
    b. opening if a standing pilot goes out.
    c. malfunctioning if the gas pressure is to high
    d. shutting down if the thermostat settings haven’t been reached
    e. pumping in too rich a gas mixture
  217. What conditions may adversely affect the vent of a fuel burning heating system?
    a. chimney flue cross section too large
    b. long horizontal run to a vent connector
    c. multiple units connected to a single flue
    d. vent termination one foot above roof
    e. all of the above
  218. The absence of what AC system component(s) on the upper level two story home could result in uneven/poor cooling?
    a. low return, low supply
    b. electrostatic filter
    c. high return, high supply
    d. reversing valve
    e. low/high humidity limit controls
  219. What is the approximate BTU rating of a central air conditioning system with a high SEER rating and a listed RLA of 19.0 amps?
    a. 12,000
    b. 18,000
    c. 24,000
    d. 36,000
    e. 48,000
  220. The small warm refrigerant line which runs between an evaporator and condensing unit carries:
    a. liquid refrigerant to the condenser coil
    b. high pressure gas to the compressor
    c. gaseous freon to the condenser
    d. high pressure freon gas to the evaporator
    e. liquid refrigerant to the evaporator coil
  221. In a split central AC system, what component is generally located in the furnace/utility area or at an air handler in the attic?
    a. condenser
    b. compressor
    c. evaporator coil
    d. sump heater
    e. reversing valve
  222. The dryer in a refrigerant line of an A?C system:
    a. removes the moisture from the house air
    b. filters out contaminates
    c. is sometimes used in place of an expansion valve
    d. reduces the effects of external evaporation
    e. provides heat to prevent freon freeze-up
  223. AC units should not be operated in cold (<60 degrees F) outdoor temperature because
    a. the evaporator coil will overheat
    b. the evaporator fan will freeze-up
    c. compressor damage may occur
    d. the compressor will split open
    e. the compressor will compensate for the inoperative fan
  224. The discharge temperature at the condenser should be:
    a. less than the ambient temperature
    b. equal to the ambient temperature
    c. higher than the ambient temperature
    d. equal to the indoor temperature
    e. always lower than the indoor air temperature
  225. As a general guide, the amperage a unit draws should be within what percentage to the rated amperage to be considered adequate?
    a. exactly the same as rated amperage
    b. within 10-20% of rated amperage
    c. within 20-30% of rated amperage
    d. within 40% of rated amperage
    e. depends on house age
  226. Operating an air conditioner on a humid 95 degree day, you would expect to find:
    a. air coming out of the registers at 60 degrees
    b. current draw at 50% of RLA listing
    c. no condensation draining from the evaporator pan
    d. roughly a 20 degree differential between the return and supply air temperatures
    e.shutdown due to crankcase heater failure
  227. What factor would usually not have a bearing on the rating of and AC system compressor?
    a. refrigerant gas line pressures
    b. measure of running amperage
    c. measure of crankcase heater voltage
    d. refrigerant gas line temperatures
    e. temperature differential across condenser coils
  228. Which one of the following upgrades is least likely to significantly improve the comfort and efficiency of an AC system?
    a. adding high returns
    b. improving attic ventilation
    c. insulating the compressor/condenser unit
    d. servicing a unit with a low freon charge
    e. replacing a totally dirty-clogged filter
  229. If and AC compressor was rated to run at 20 amps, and operating amperage was 40 amps, it would indicate:
    a. unit was operating at a very high efficiency
    b. no problems-normal reading
    c. unit may be about to seize up
    d. freon charge is slightly low
    e. cold air input would e too hot
  230. What is the normal temperature of the air from the heat ducts with a heat pump operating in the normal heating mode?
    a. 70-80 degrees F
    b. 90-100 degrees F
    c. 110-120 degrees F
    d. 120-130 degrees F
    e. 150+ degrees F
  231. In a well designed heat pump system, what size (cross-sectional area) are heat ducts in relation to a normal forced hot air furnace system?
    a. smaller
    b. same size
    c. larger
    d. depends on thermal valve
    e. depends on house size
  232. With a heat pump system, if it is 55 degrees outside and the hot air is coming out of the register at 100 degrees F (38 C) you can probably conclude, without visually checking the compressor, that:
    a. the compressor is functioning properly
    b. the resistance coils are operating
    c. the condenser is satisfactory
    d. the system is supplying heat to the house
    e. the reversing valve is not working

Small part of the multitude that i have…

Heating - Cooling

  1. Which of the following is not an automatic safety control?a. limit switch
    b. thermostat.
    c. a spillage switch.
    d. thermocouple.
    e. flame sensor.

  2. Which of the following is not a method of heat transfer?a. conduction.
    b. induction.
    c. convection.
    d. radiation.
    e. convective loops.

  3. The high limit setting for a forced air gas furnace is typically:a. 150 degrees Fahrenheit.
    b. 200 degrees Fahrenheit.
    c. 250 degrees Fahrenheit.
    d. 300 degrees Fahrenheit.
    e. 350 degrees Fahrenheit.

  4. Off-cycle losses on a conventional gas-fired furnace waste:a. 5% of the heat generated.
    b. 10% of the heat generated.
    c. 20 % of the heat generated.
    d. 30% of the heat generated.
    e. 40% of the heat generated.

  5. Natural gabs burners can have several different draft mechanisms. All of the following are possible, excepta. natural draft.
    b. gravity venting.
    c. induced draft.
    d. reverse draft.
    e. forced draft.

  6. Piping in boiler systems is rarely made from:a. black steel.
    b. polybutylene.
    c. cross-linked polyethylene.
    d. galvanized steel.
    e. copper.

  7. The pressure-reducing valve:a. reduces plumbing water pressure to boiler pressure.
    b. reduces boiler water pressure to plumbing pressure.
    c. reduces the pressure in the radiator to atmospheric pressure.
    d. prevents accumulation of on in the top of the radiator.
    e. prevents overheating.

  8. Boiler water should not be drained in the summer because:a. it is a nuisance to refill in the fall.
    b. fresh water will cause system corrosion.
    c. fresh water lowers the system response time.
    d. fresh water lowers the system efficiency.
    e. fresh water can cause the pressure relief valve to leak.

  9. Typical water pressure at a boiler at rest in a two-story house is:a. 1-5 psi
    b. 5-10 psi
    c. 10-15 psi
    d. 15-20 psi
    e. 20-25 psi

  10. The most difficult design problems on high-efficiency boilers is:a. the return water temperature is too hot.
    b. the return water temperature is too cold.
    c. the circulator needs to be changed.
    d. the new boiler operated at a higher pressure.
    e. the chimney is no longer used.

  11. In most cases chimney deterioration is caused by:a. water/moisture caused by condensation
    b. wind
    c. improper height
    d. nesting animals

  12. The three major components of a fossil fuel forced air furnace are:a. heat exchanger, burner, blower
    b. return air, combustion air, and vent system
    c. plenum, blower, register
    d. heating ducts, hot air vent and plenum box

  13. The function of a fan/limit switch is to:a. limit the speed of fan and motor
    b. measure and control the air flow over the heat exchanger
    c. limit the air flow through the unit
    d. control when the fan comes on or off and shut off to the burners if the furnace overheats

  14. In a hydronic system, the normal operating pressure is:a. 30-40 psi
    b. 12-25 psi
    c. 3-5 psi
    d. 22-25 psi

  15. The Hartford loop in a steam system:a. automatically maintains the water level
    b. is an equalizer that insures that pressures are equal above and below the water line in the equipment
    c. precludes siphon action if the unit develops a leak
    d. all of the above

  16. The most likely area to find a crack or hole in the heat exchanger is:a. in the top of the heat exchanger
    b. along the rear seams
    c. in front, behind the heat shield
    d. along the lower section where the flames are

  17. A good sign the there is a crack or hole in the heat exchanger is:a. irregular flame pattern when the blower is on
    b. severe rusting of the heat exchanger
    c. strange smells at the register
    d. all of the above

  18. A furnace has a pilot/thermocouple set up. What is the safety feature that shuts down the furnace?a. thermocouple
    b. pilot
    c. gas valve
    d. none of the above

  19. Where will you find a drip leg on a gas heating unit?a. on the condensate line
    b. where the gas line meets the heating unit
    c. there is none

  20. A house that you are inspection has an unlit pilot light. What is your requirement as an ASHI inspector?a. light the pilot
    b. come back and re-inspect after someone else has lighted the pilot
    c. report that the pilot was out
    d. none of the above

  21. During a heating season, the outside coil will go into a defrost cycle every ninety minutes and last for:a. 10 minutes
    b. 15 minutes
    c. 20 minutes

  22. Heat strips are measured in KW. Each strip is equal to approximately:a. 5 KW
    b. 10 KW
    c. 30 KW

  23. The basic minimum distance a flue must extend above a roof or any portion at the building extending upward at a angle greater then 45 degrees is:a. 1-2 feet
    b. 2-4 feet
    c. 2-5 feet
    d. 3-4 feet

  24. A fairly common reason for air flow in a forced air furnace is:a. dirty air filter
    b. poor fan operation
    c. large hole in the heat exchanger
    d. a & b

  25. The function of a heat anticipator is:a. to help adjust the thermostat controls for ease of operation
    b. to cause the thermostat to turn off a few degrees below the setting to prevent over heating of the heat exchanger.
    c. to assist the furnace blower

  26. You observe a single wall vent 2" from wood. How would you report:a. safety hazard
    b. monitor
    c. contact experts

  27. A hydronic or forced circulating system is:a. an open system subject to atmospheric pressure
    b. closed to the atmosphere and under pressure
    c. closed system in which only the supply is under pressure
    d. an antiquated way of heating residential structure

  28. Chimney should generally be installed:a. 6" higher than anything within 10’
    b. 18" higher than anything within 10’
    c. 2’ higher than anything within 10’
    3- higher than anything within 10’

  29. When converting from natural gas to propane gas.a. the orifice must be large
    b. the orifice plays no role
    c. the orifice must be smaller
    d. none of the above

  30. If natural gas line is changed to LP, you needa. smaller orifice
    b. large orifice
    c. to change valve assembly
    d. do nothing

when converting from natural gas to LP:

  1. The devices used to provide ignition for oil and gas-fired systems are:Thermostat controls, dampers and emergency shut offs
    b. blower, motor, fan and limit switches
    c. emergency flashing lights and low limit switches
    d. pilot and sensing devices

  2. The purpose of the pressure relief valve in a hydronic heating system is to:a. to relieve high temperatures in a forced air system
    b. to prevent back low in the water system
    c. to prevent pressure with the system from exceeding a pre-set limit of 30 psi
    d. to release pressure in the heat exchanger system

  3. How many heat transfer coil do conventional air-cooled central air conditioning systems have?a. none
    b. one
    c. two
    d. three
    e. five

  4. In the evaporator coil of an air-cooled air conditioner:a. Freon heats up as it changes from a liquid to a gas
    b. Freon cools as it changes from a gas to a liquid
    c. Freon cools as it changes from a liquid to a gas
    d. Freon changes from a cool gas to a warm gas
    e. Freon changes from a warm liquid to a cool liquid

  5. Why does an air conditioner compressor often not start up for five minutes or so if it has been shut off for just a few seconds?a. to allow the electrical current time to stop flowing in all parts of the circuit
    b. to allow the pressures on the suction and discharge side of the compressor to equalize to equalize
    c. to allow the Freon on the suction side of the compressor to heat up
    d. To allow the Freon on the discharge side of the compressor to cool down
    e. to avoid damaging the evaporator coil

  6. The implications of a dirty evaporator coil in a split-system air conditioner could be any of the following except for one. Which does not apply?a. Airflow is restricted.
    b. Heat transfer is inhibited.
    c. Cooling is inadequate.
    d. The compressor may be damaged trying to pump a liquid rather than gas.
    e. The condenser coil may ice up and be damaged.

  7. The ideal location for a return grill on an air conditioning system is:a. at or near floor level on an outside wall
    b. at or near floor level on an interior wall
    c. at or near ceiling level on an exterior wall
    d. at or near ceiling level on an interior wall
    e. in the floor near the midpoint of the room

  8. Which of the following statements is true?a. When a heat pump is in the cooling mode, the indoor coil is the condenser.
    b. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the condensate line should be producing at least one quart of water every two hours.
    c. When a heat pump is in the cooling mode, the outdoor coil is the evaporator
    d. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the Emergency Heat switch should be activated
    e. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the indoor coil is in the condenser

  9. Which of the following components would be found on a heat pump but not on a central air conditioning system?a. compressor
    b. expansion device
    c. reversing valve
    d. indoor coil
    e. outdoor coil

  10. Weak airflow on forced-air systems at the registers is caused by all of these: excepta. dirty filter
    b. a clogged indoor coil
    c. a slipping fan belt on the fan motor
    d. dirt on the fan blades
    e. low refrigerant charge

  11. If we operate a heat pump in the cooling mode, when the temperature is t low, we:a. maximize the efficiency
    b. minimize the efficiency
    c. extend the life of the unit
    d. risk damaging the compressor
    e. overload the crankcase heater

  12. A fireplace should not share a chimney flue with:a. another fireplace
    b. a furnace
    c. another wood stove
    d. all of the above

  13. From an energy efficiency standpoint, which is the least efficient appliance?a. wood stoves.
    b. wood-burning fireplaces.
    c. gas furnaces.
    d. oil furnaces.

  14. A wood stove should have a pad under it that prevents sparks or embers from igniting a combustible floor. How far should this pad extend out in front of the stove?a. 12 inches
    b. 16 inches
    c. 18 inches
    d. 20 inches
    e. 24 inches

  15. Common and dangerous cracks in the hearth of a wood-burning fireplace are often found:a. at the back of the hearth.
    b. at the side of the hearth.
    c. between the hearth and hearth extension.
    d. at the front of the hearth extension.
    e. at the sides of the hearth extension.

  16. A 20 kilowatt electric furnace has an output BTU/hr capacity of roughly:a. 48,000 BTU per hour
    b. 68,000 BTU per hour
    c. 88,000 TU per hour
    d. 108,000 BTU per hour
    e. 118,000 BTU per hour

  17. Why don’t we want electrical receptacles located above heaters?a. the circuit is likely to be overloaded
    b. the fuse is likely to be undersized
    c. an electrical cord resting on a heater poses a fire hazard
    d. whatever is plugged into the receptacle will obstruct the heater
    e. the receptacle will be to hot to touch when plugging in an appliance

  18. The characteristics of a good chimney include all of the following, except:a. enhance the draft of appliances.
    b. prevent exhaust gases from entering the house.
    c. support their own weight.
    d. provide combustion air.
    e. help keep water out of the house.

  19. In masonry chimneys, adjacent flues are usually separated by:a. a clay tile liner.
    b. an air space.
    c. a stainless steel divider.
    d. a wythe of brick.
    e. non-combustible material.

  20. B vents:a. are used with oil.
    b. are used with wood stoves.
    c. are used with wood fireplaces.
    d. are used with oil and gas appliances.
    e. are used with gas appliances.

  21. How many heat transfer coil do conventional air-cooled central air conditioning systems have?a. none
    b. one
    c. two
    d. three
    e. five

  22. In the evaporator coil of an air-cooled air conditioner:a. Freon heats up as it changes from a liquid to a gas
    b. Freon cools as it changes from a gas to a liquid
    c. Freon cools as it changes from a liquid to a gas
    d. Freon changes from a cool gas to a warm gas
    e. Freon changes from a warm liquid to a cool liquid

  23. Why does an air conditioner compressor often not start up for five minutes or so if it has been shut off for just a few seconds?a. to allow the electrical current time to stop flowing in all parts of the circuit
    b. to allow the pressures on the suction and discharge side of the compressor to equalize to equalize
    c. to allow the Freon on the suction side of the compressor to heat up
    d. To allow the Freon on the discharge side of the compressor to cool down
    e. to avoid damaging the evaporator coil

  24. The implications of a dirty evaporator coil in a split-system air conditioner could be any of the following except for one. Which does not apply?a. Airflow is restricted.
    b. Heat transfer is inhibited.
    c. Cooling is inadequate.
    d. The compressor may be damaged trying to pump a liquid rather than gas.
    e. The condenser coil may ice up and be damaged.

  25. The ideal location for a return grill on an air conditioning system is:a. at or near floor level on an outside wall
    b. at or near floor level on an interior wall
    c. at or near ceiling level on an exterior wall
    d. at or near ceiling level on an interior wall
    e. in the floor near the midpoint of the room

  26. Which of the following statements is true?a. When a heat pump is in the cooling mode, the indoor coil is the condenser.
    b. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the condensate line should be producing at least one quart of water every two hours.
    c. When a heat pump is in the cooling mode, the outdoor coil is the evaporator
    d. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the Emergency Heat switch should be activated
    e. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the indoor coil is in the condenser

  27. Which of the following components would be found on a heat pump but not on a central air conditioning system?a. compressor
    b. expansion device
    c. reversing valve
    d. indoor coil
    e. outdoor coil

  28. Weak airflow on forced-air systems at the registers is caused by all of these: excepta. dirty filter
    b. a clogged indoor coil
    c. a slipping fan belt on the fan motor
    d. dirt on the fan blades
    e. low refrigerant charge

  29. If we operate a heat pump in the cooling mode, when the temperature is t low, we:a. maximize the efficiency
    b. minimize the efficiency
    c. extend the life of the unit
    d. risk damaging the compressor
    e. overload the crankcase heater

  30. Type B vent is:a. single wall
    b. double wall
    c. triple wall
    d. any of the above

  31. Type A vent is used for:a. fireplaces
    b. furnaces
    c. wood burning stove

  32. A new gas furnace has 2 pairs of rods running the length of the burners. They are:a. providing stability during shipping
    b. reducing nitrate oxide present in the atmosphere
    c. helping prevent damage to the heat exchanger
    d. debris that has fallen into the furnace

  33. What is the clearance for combustibles for a single-wall furnace vent.a. 18"
    b. 9"
    c. 6"
    d. 8"

  34. What is the proper strapping requirement for ductwork:a. 6’
    b. 4’
    c. 12’
    d. not specified

  35. What was added to furnaces after 1980?a. high limit switch
    b. fan blower switch
    c. thermocouple
    d. two heat exchangers

  36. When converting from natural gas to LP:a.need more combustion air
    b. need less combustion air
    c. same amount of combustion needed
    d. none of the above

  37. Pipes running from oil storage tank to furnace:a. must be protected
    b. have to be buried in concrete floor
    c. can never be buried in concrete floor
    d. can run across top of floor

  38. Two small copper pipes going through a basement wall indicates:a. water pipes
    b. possible underground storage tank
    c. support for walls
    d. none of the above

  39. Plaster cracks over a chimney breast are usually caused by:changing materials
    b. settlement of the chimney
    c. heat
    d. changing of the humidity from front to back

  40. Common temperature at registers with old furnace:a. 110-130
    b.130-150
    c. 150
    d. 160

  41. An inspector enters a vacant home to inspect it and notices a strong smell of gas. What should he do?a. Open the windows and inspect the home
    b. investigate the smell and attempt to repair it
    c. vacate the home and call all appropriate people

  42. You see a return air register in the side of the furnace:a. say nothing
    b. needed
    c. can cause by-product fumes to feed into supply air
    d. have no effect on operation

  43. Mid-efficiency furnace.1. How many heat transfer coil do conventional air-cooled central air conditioning systems have?a. none
    b. one
    c. two
    d. three
    e. five

  44. In the evaporator coil of an air-cooled air conditioner:a. Freon heats up as it changes from a liquid to a gas
    b. Freon cools as it changes from a gas to a liquid
    c. Freon cools as it changes from a liquid to a gas
    d. Freon changes from a cool gas to a warm gas
    e. Freon changes from a warm liquid to a cool liquid

  45. Why does an air conditioner compressor often not start up for five minutes or so if it has been shut off for just a few seconds?a. to allow the electrical current time to stop flowing in all parts of the circuit
    b. to allow the pressures on the suction and discharge side of the compressor to equalize to equalize
    c. to allow the Freon on the suction side of the compressor to heat up
    d. To allow the Freon on the discharge side of the compressor to cool down
    e. to avoid damaging the evaporator coil

  46. The implications of a dirty evaporator coil in a split-system air conditioner could be any of the following except for one. Which does not apply?a. Airflow is restricted.
    b. Heat transfer is inhibited.
    c. Cooling is inadequate.
    d. The compressor may be damaged trying to pump a liquid rather than gas.
    e. The condenser coil may ice up and be damaged.

  47. The ideal location for a return grill on an air conditioning system is:a. at or near floor level on an outside wall
    b. at or near floor level on an interior wall
    c. at or near ceiling level on an exterior wall
    d. at or near ceiling level on an interior wall
    e. in the floor near the midpoint of the room

  48. Which of the following statements is true?a. When a heat pump is in the cooling mode, the indoor coil is the condenser.
    b. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the condensate line should be producing at least one quart of water every two hours.
    c. When a heat pump is in the cooling mode, the outdoor coil is the evaporator
    d. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the Emergency Heat switch should be activated
    e. When a heat pump is in the heating mode, the indoor coil is in the condenser

  49. Which of the following components would be found on a heat pump but not on a central air conditioning system?a. compressor
    b. expansion device
    c. reversing valve
    d. indoor coil
    e. outdoor coil

  50. Weak airflow on forced-air systems at the registers is caused by all of these: excepta. dirty filter
    b. a clogged indoor coil
    c. a slipping fan belt on the fan motor
    d. dirt on the fan blades
    e. low refrigerant charge

  51. If we operate a heat pump in the cooling mode, when the temperature is t low, we:a. maximize the efficiency
    b. minimize the efficiency
    c. extend the life of the unit
    d. risk damaging the compressor
    e. overload the crankcase heater

  52. A Type L flue is rated fora. gas
    b. oil
    c. wood
    d. all

  53. A furnace has a pilot, thermocouple set up. What shuts down the furnace:a. thermocouple
    b. pilot
    c. gas valve
    d. burners

  54. Three major components of a fossil fueled forced air furnace are:a. plenum, blower, register
    b. return air, combustion air, vent system
    c. heat exchanger, burner, blower
    d. heating ducts, hot air venting system, plenum

  55. Function of a fan/limit switch is to:a. limit the speed of the fan and motor
    b. control when fan comes on or off and shut off the burner if furnace overheats
    c. measure and control the air flow over the heat exchanger
    d. limit the air flow through the unit

  56. The function of the barometric damper is to:a. prevent back drafting
    b. provide draft regulation
    c. coal flue
    d. provide combustion air

  57. You notice isolators on the ductwork during an inspection. What are they for:a. to reduce vibration from motor
    b. to reduce noise in duct work
    c. allow for expansion
    d. decoration

  58. What determines the size of a fireplace flue.a. opening of fireplace
    b. area of fire box
    c. number of fireplaces vented into the flue
    d. type of house

  59. In a steam heating system, a normal operating pressure is:30 psi
    b. 12-20 psi
    c. 3-5 psi
    d. 22-25

  60. In a older home a forced hot air furnace is replaced by a heat pump, the heat coming out of the register is:a. hotter
    b. cooler
    c. same
    d. depends on the air duct layout

  61. You inspect a home with a wood stove 18" from the wall. You notice that the unit does not have a UL approved sticker. You should tell client:a. the stove has to go
    b. the stove is too close to the wall
    c. do not buy the house
    d. everything is OK

  62. If you have a gas furnace and a gas water heater in the basement and a gas furnace in the attic, how many flues do you need for proper venting.a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4

  63. If the furnace lower stops running after the burners have shut off and then the blower turns back on without the burners on-what is the most likely situation:a. bad thermocouple
    b. bad gas valve
    c. fan/limit control switch does not operate properly
    d. fan/motor does not work properly

  64. What is the typical clearance to combustibles for a wall furnace?a. 1"
    b. 2"
    c. 4"
    d. 6"

  65. The clearance from a wall furnace to the ceiling is:a. 8"
    b. 12"
    c. 18"
    d. 24"

  66. The clearance from a wall furnace to the nearest wall is:a. 6"
    b. 8"
    c. 12"
    d. 16"

  67. The two main components of an air-conditioning system are:a. fan and coil
    b. ductwork and expansion valve
    c. evaporator unit and the condensing unit
    d. compressor and refrigerant

  68. When inspecting an A/C unit, you find supply air to be 64F and the return air to be 80F, how would you report?a. change filter
    b. OK
    c. call technician
    d. none of the above

  69. What does an A/C compressor do?a. pressurize the refrigerant gas in order to raise its temperature
    b. lower temperature of gas
    c. releases heat from the compressor to outside
    d. raises temperature of the liquid

  70. The defrost cycle on a heat pump occurs when the outside temperature is cold, usually at or below:a. 50F
    b. 37F
    c. Below 0
    d. none of the above

  71. A heat pump running in the heat mode should:a. suction line will be warm to the touch
    b. discharge air from outside coil that is cooler than ambient air
    c. discharge air from inside coil that is between 90F to 105F
    d. all of the above

  72. When a heat pump is installed as a retro-fit into an existing system and the ducts are to small, what will happen?a. nothing
    b. unit is starved for air due to poor circulation
    c. over-heat on heating mode
    c. be of no consequence
    d. a & b above

  73. Geothermal heat pumps compared to air-to-air are:a. more efficient
    b. do not lose efficiency as outside air temperature drops
    c. 2-3 times more expensive to install
    d. all of the above

  74. A dirty filter can cause:a. high compressor ratio and failure of compressor
    b. reduced air flow and tower return air temperature
    c. clogged condensate drain line and condensate flooding
    d. all of the above

  75. A metering device is used to:a. keep track of coolant used
    b. measure the energy use
    c. reduce pressure on coolant

  76. In the cooling cycle, the condensing coil is located:a. outside
    b. inside
    c. both a & b

  77. The two main components of an air cooled air conditioning system are:a. the fan and coil
    b. duct work and expansion unit
    c. evaporator unit and the condenser unit
    d. compressor and refrigerant

  78. In a conventional heat pump the most critical component is the:a. compressor
    b. condenser
    c. expansion device
    d. blower fan

  79. In a heat pump cycle, the evaporator is:a. outside
    b. inside
    c. either of the above
    d. none of the above

  80. In a typical heat pump operation in the heat mode, the temperature differential at the heat exchanger (supply/return) should be about:a. 30F
    b. 5-7F
    c. 15F
    d. 20-22F

  81. A/C unit has 3-ton capacity.a. 3000
    b. 6000
    c. 30,000
    d. 36,000

  82. Evaporator coolers are used in areas:a. that have dry weather
    b. that have moist weather
    c. all areas
    d. not used for homes

  83. What is the purpose of the accumulator?a. keep dirt out of the compressor
    b. keep liquids out of the compressor
    c. record a total of coolant used

  84. During heat pump operation, supplement heat is provided by:a. ground loop heat source
    b. electric heat strips
    c. solar panels

  85. A heat pump with a compressor rating of 21.5 amps is approximately:a. 2 tons of cooling
    b. 2 1/2 tones of cooling
    c. 3 tons of cooling

  86. When inspecting a heat pump or air conditioner, you find the inside coils condensation drain is connected directly to, or is inside of a sanitary sewer line:a. this is OK and you do not report it
    b. this is a health and code concern and it needs to be corrected
    c. this is not right, but such a minor detail that you do not report it

  87. When inspecting a heat pump (only the top bubble is engaged at the thermostat), you take the temperature of the air at the register. The temperature should bea. 95F to 100F
    b. 100F to 110F
    c. 115F to 120F

  88. A/C icing on evaporator coil is caused by:a. too much air
    b. not enough air
    c. sized wrong
    d. all of the above

  89. Central air is added to an existing furnace. What is required:a. larger ductwork
    b. 2 speed fan
    c. smaller ductwork
    d. more registers

  90. Properly balanced ductwork required:a. same flow in return and supply
    b. 30% more flow in supply
    c. 30% more flow in return
    d. makes no difference

  91. What is a summer switch:a. reversing valve in a heat pump
    b. switch to manually activate a blower in a forced air furnace
    c. pilot shut-off device
    d. switch to change thermostat to activate swamp cooler

  92. A swamp cooler is used in:a. dry climate
    b. damp climate
    c. any climate
    d. commercial buildings only

  93. Evaporator cooler:a. used in damp climate
    b. has a compressor
    c. has electricity and water to it:
    d. not used on houses

  94. A/C in attic. What is proper way to get rid of condensation:a. Put in a vent pipe
    b. drain to vent pipe if no other means exist
    c. use catch pan and pump
    d. second drain line

  95. In a heat pump cooling cycle, the condensing coil is located:a. outside
    b. inside
    c. both inside and outside
    d. on top of condenser unit

  96. At what point in an A?C cycle does the liquid turn into gas:a. passing through the expansion-coil
    b. coming out of the compressor
    c. coming out of the evaporator coil
    d. coming out of the condensing coil

  97. What is a proper temperature differential across the AC coil?a. 15-20 degrees F or 14-22 degrees F
    b. 2-3 degrees F
    c. 30-50 degrees F
    d. 90-100 degrees F

  98. The component of a central air conditioner which produces the condensate is:a. the condenser coil
    b. the evaporator coil
    c. the compressor
    d. the expansion valve
    e. the accumulator

  99. Chilled air id sensor than warm air:a. true
    b. false

  100. The component of the central air conditioner which releases heat is the:a. compressor
    b. condenser coil
    c. evaporator coil
    d. expansion valve
    e. thermostat

  101. The evaporator is located:a. usually above the furnace, definitely after the heat exchanger
    b. at the compressor
    c. in the return air ducting
    d. in the garage
    e. below the refrigerator

  102. When a cooling coil or air conditioning unit is located in an attic or over a space, where damage may result from condensate overflow:a. the installation is prohibited
    b. a standing overflow and separate drain may be provided in lieu of the separate pan
    c. an additional metal watertight pan shall be installed beneath the cooling coil unit
    d. the diameter of the drain must be two nominal pipe sizes larger than the connection to the pan
    e. either b or c apply

  103. Independent air conditioning systems are often used on houses heated by:a. heat pumps
    b, electric baseboard heaters
    c. electric radiant heat
    d. gas forced-air heating
    e. both b and c above

  104. What is the state of the refrigerant when it is cold and hot?a. cold=gas/hot=liquid
    b. hot=gas/cold=liquid
    c. hot=liquid/cold=liquid
    d. hot=gas/cold=liquid
    e. any of the above

  105. Below the balance point, a heat pump:a. may not be able to generate enough heat to warm the house.
    b. operates more economically
    c. should not be running in heating mode for fear of damaging the compressor
    d. may tip over
    e. both b and c

  106. condensate or waste water may drain to a:a. driveway
    b. sidewalk at the entryway
    c. rooftop or ground for irrigation
    d. floor drain or the ground outside
    e. water well

  107. An arrangement of piping or tubing in which vaporized refrigerant is liquefied by removal of heat is a:a. compressor
    b. vaporizer
    c. generator
    d. condenser
    e. evaporator

  108. chilled air is ______ to move than warm air.a. harder
    b. easier
    c. heavier
    d. lighter
    e. a & c above

  109. The suction line should be insulated:a. to prevent condensation
    b. to decrease cooling looses
    c. to prevent line damage
    d. to protect the liquid line
    e. both a and b above

  110. The compressor is located:a. in the evaporator
    b. in the furnace
    c. in the condenser
    d. outside in the louvered cabinet
    e. with the humidifier

  111. The function of the compressor is to:a. move the refrigerant
    b. compress the refrigerant
    c. compress the condensate
    d. compress the household air
    e. both a and b

  112. The life expectancy of a compressor is typically:a. 6-8 years
    b. 10-15 years
    c. 15-20 years
    d. 2 days after the warranty expires
    e. 20-25 years

  113. Overflow from evaporative coolers and condensate from air cooling coils shall be collected and discharged to an:a. approved location
    b. roof drain
    c. planter box
    d. holding tank
    e. all of the above

  114. What is the minimum safe temperature in which to operate an air conditioner?a. hotter then 100 degrees
    b. hotter than 90 degrees
    c. hotter than 80 degrees
    d. colder than 65 degrees
    e. hotter than 65 degrees

  115. Evaporative coolers:a. are effective in dry climates
    b. are also called “swamp coolers”
    c. produce cool, damp air
    d. all of the above

  116. In a water-cooled air conditioning system, the condenser coil is cooled by using:a. the swimming pool
    b. the supply plumbing system
    c. the waste plumbing system
    d. a nearby river or stream
    e. both a and d above

  117. The “emergency heat” switch on some thermostats is used:a. in case of a gas leak
    b. in case of cool temperatures during the summer
    c. if a temperature increase of 20 degrees or more is required in a short period of time
    d. to bypass the heat pump and rely solely on heat from the supplemental source
    e. when the refrigerant levels get too low

  118. The refrigerant is altered from gas to liquid at the:a. evaporator
    b. compressor
    c. condenser
    d. furnace
    e. suction line

  119. When an air conditioner is added to an existing furnace system:a. new filters must be installed
    b. the air ducts are sometimes too small
    c. the blower may need changing
    d. a new thermostat may be needed
    e. b, c, and d above

  120. Evaporative coolers supported directly by the ground:

shall be isolated from the groundb. shall be on a level concrete slab
c. shall be at least 3" above adjacent grade
d. shall be at least 6" above adjacent grade
e. e a, b, c above

  1. Central air conditioning makes the indoor climate more comfortable by:a. increasing humidity levels
    b. reducing humidity levels
    c. increasing air circulation
    d. reducing interior air temperature
    e. both b and d

  2. Condensate drains for air conditioners:a. should be visible at both ends
    b. should have a trap in them
    c. are typically plastic piping
    d. should drain to the exterior or other approved locations
    e. all of the above

  3. An air conditioner with a reversing valve is called:a. a Hartford loop
    b. a heat exchanger
    c. a handy mans nightmare
    d. a heat pump
    e. a swamp cooler

  4. What is required for a 3 zone heating system:a. 3 return registers
    b. 3 boilers
    c. 3 thermostats
    d. relays
    e. 3 radiators

  5. Floor furnaces shall bea. closer than 6 inches to the ground
    b. installed on a concrete slab on grade
    c. supported independently of the furnace floor grill
    d. are not termed “gravity flow” in the mechanical code
    e. can be supported on masonry blocks

  6. In a garage, the burner flame should be _____ inches above the floora. 6
    b. 10
    c. 12
    d. 16
    e. 18

  7. What devices distribute the heat in the rooms in a hydronic system?a. radiators
    b. con vectors
    c. supply grills
    d. registers
    e. a and b above

  8. What is the purpose of the draft hood (diverter) on a gas furnace?a. to heat the vent flue
    b. to provide combustion air
    c. to dilute combustion air
    d. to dilute combustion gases and cool them
    e. to allow secondary air to help the combustion by products vent to the exterior
    f. d and e above

  9. What is the purpose of the barometric damper on an oil furnace?a. to reduce secondary air flow through the combustion chamber and provide draft air
    b. to provide combustion air
    c. to heat the garage area
    d. to heat the vent pipe
    e. all of the above

  10. The best method for a home inspector to check a furnace heat exchanger is to:a. remove the plenum and blower
    b. watch for flame deflection when the blower comes on the visual observation
    c. open the plenum and inject tracer gas in the burner compartment
    d. check the registers for air velocity
    e. all of the above

  11. Every fuel burning unit heater, floor furnace or wall furnace is required to have a:a. draft damper
    b. volume damper
    e. vent
    d. high heat alarm
    e. low heat alarm

  12. What is the probable cause of back drafting of a furnace?a. blocked flue
    b. faulty heat exchanger
    c. broken high limit switch
    d. micro switch in wrong location
    e. excessive combustion air

  13. Pounds per square inch gauge is the measurement fora. water temperature
    b. pressure
    c. oiler temperature
    d. water column
    e. return air

  14. Air starved gas fires can producea. efflorescence
    b. carbon monoxide
    c. carbon dioxide
    d. heat
    e. all of the above

  15. To prevent water from siphoning out of the boiler if a return line springs a leak, what is installed on the equalizer at a point 2 inches below the steam boiler water level?a. low water cut-off
    b. a check valve
    c. a Hartford loop
    d. a TPR valve
    e. a thermostat

  16. A unitary 10,000 BTU room gas heatera. may be vented to the attic
    b. is too small to require venting
    c. should warm up the room in about 30 minutes
    d. must be vented to the exterior

  17. The most important condenser consideration isa. nothing should prevent air entering the cabinet or leaving the fan (blower)
    b. the condenser should be located on the shady side of the house
    c. the condenser should be located on the sunny side of the house
    d. the fan axis should be vertical
    e. none of the above

  18. Water cooled condensersa. often have short-cycling compressors
    b.depend on both water temperature and pressure
    c. must be located outside in case of leakage
    d. should discharge the warm water into the sewer or waste system

  19. A standard safety control for a warm air system is:a. thermostat
    b. a fan switch
    c. a limit switch
    d. a “summer” switch

  20. How can an inspector know that a heating system is fueled by oil?a. presence of a sight glass
    b. pressure/temp gauge
    c. condensate line
    d. barometric damper

  21. In converting kilowatts (kw) to BTU’s for capacity rating, 1 kw is equivalent toa. 1210 BTU
    b. 450 BTU
    c. 6813 BTU
    d. 3412 BTU
    e. 5817 BTU

  22. If the bypass duct on a standard drum-type humidifier is not closed during cooling seasona. the evaporator coil may ice up
    b. airflow at the registers will be weak
    c. the electronic air cleaner may be bypassed
    d. the thermostat may shut the unit off prematurely

  23. Which of the following is the most critical component of a forced-air furnace?a. blower and motor
    b. gas valve
    c. heat exchanger
    d. thermostat
    e. gas burner

  24. Which of the following is not found on an open hot water heating system?a. heat exchanger
    b. expansion tank
    c. burner
    d. circulating pump
    e. high temperature limit

  25. Roughly, how much ventilation (for combustion air) should be provided for a conventional gas furnace?a. one square foot per 1,000 BTU’s
    b. two square inches per 1,000 BTU’s
    c. two square feet
    d. none is required on a gas furnace
    e. two square inches per 100 BTU’s

  26. The following deice provides ignition of the pilot light:a. vent damper
    b. thermocouple
    c. spark plug
    d. barometric damper
    e. primary control

  27. What is a primary control?a. thermostat
    b. power switch for furnace (typically near basement stairs).
    c. safety device which senses temperature in exhaust flue
    d. tan/limit switch
    e. gas valve

  28. The exhaust flue on a conventional gas furnace should have a slope of at least:a. 1/4 inch per foot
    b. 1/2 inch per foot
    c. 3/4 inch per foot
    d. 1 inch per foot

  29. The standard safety control for a warm air system isa. a thermostat
    b. a fan switch
    c. a limit switch
    d. a summer switch

  30. In a garage, how far above ground should the flame of a heating unit or water beater be?a. 6 inches
    b. 12 inches
    c. 18 inches
    d. 24 inches

  31. Fuel burning forced warm air consists ofa. combustion chamber
    b. heat exchanger and return ducting
    e. fan with filter
    d. supply
    e. all of the above

  32. Gas burners are lit bya. a pilot flame
    b. an electronic igniter
    c. a surface igniter
    d. any of the above

  33. A fireplace hearth should extend beyond the front of the fireplace by at least:a. 8 inches
    b. 12 inches
    c. 16 inches
    d. 24 inches

  34. Chilled air is denser than warm air.a. true
    b. false

  35. Air conditioning equipment should not be operated when the ambient temperature is below:a. 32 degrees
    b. 45 degrees
    c. 60 degrees
    d. 65 degrees

  36. The evaporator is:a. the system component that cools and dehumidifies the house air
    b. the component that changes the refrigerant from a liquid to a gas
    c. usually downstream of the air handler
    d. all of the above

  37. A heat pumpa. is able to heat or cool a house
    b. can be instantly changed from one operating mode to the other
    c. uses a reversing valve to reverse the refrigerant flow in the piping
    d. can operate efficiently at temperatures below about 45 degrees
    e. a and c above

  38. The component of a central air conditioner which produces condensate is"a. the condenser coil
    b. the evaporator coil
    c. the compressor
    d. the expansion valve

  39. The component of a central air conditioner which releases heat is thea. move the refrigerant
    b. compress the refrigerant
    c. compress the condensate
    d. compress the household air
    e. a and b above

  40. As a general rule of thumb, in moderate climates, most houses have systems sized at one ton cooling for every:a. 50-100 square feet
    b. 450-600 square feet
    c. 70-1000 square feet
    d. 1500-2000 square feet

  41. A mantle of combustible material on a fireplace projects 1 1/2 inch, how much clearance is needed from the fireplace opening?a. 6 inches
    b. 8 inches
    c. 16 inches
    d. 12 inches

  42. A fireplace with an opening of less than 6 square feet requires a hearth depth of _____ inches and _____ inches clearance from each side.a. 16.8
    b. 20.12
    c. 18.10
    d. none of the above

  43. The disconnect for electrical equipment (A/C unit) must be within sight but no more then _____ feet from the unit.a. 15
    b. 18
    c. 25
    d. 50

  44. what is the purpose of a smoke shelf in a masonry chimney?a. keeps more heat in the flue which means the fireplace gives off more heat
    b. eliminates the need for a damper
    c. helps prevent downdrafts from affecting the fire
    d. makes ash clean out easier
    e. provides a convenient place for wood storage

  45. When can a wood stove and central heating unit share the same chimney?a. If the heating system has an automatic pilot light
    b. If the BTU output is the same for both units
    c. if the cross-sectional area of the stove flue is less than that of the heating system
    d. if there is an automatic damper on the heating unit
    e. never, such an arrangement is not acceptable

  46. Which one of the following is most likely to indicate a potentially significant concern with an old brick chimney?a. damaged flashing
    b. no cricket
    c. damaged chimney cap
    d. no flue liner
    e. no ash pit

  47. A space between a chimney and the side of the house is least likely to indicate a significant concern if:a. the flashing has pulled away with the chimney movement
    b.the gap at the top is more than twice that at the bottom
    c. the gap at the bottom is less than twice the top
    d. it is “V” shaped and has been recently grouted
    e. there is a uniform 1 inch gap from top to bottom

  48. Which one of the following has the least significance for safe use of a fireplace?a. cracked fire brick
    b. loose/damaged mortar in fire box
    c. gap between fire box and face of fireplace
    d. missing mortar in throat
    e. no damper

  49. A wood stove:a. should have an insulated flue if run through an attic area
    b. doesn’t require regular cleaning if hardwood is used
    c. can be installed over wool carpeting if legs are on bricks
    d. can be installed with the flue running horizontal between adjacent rooms
    e. can be installed within six inches of a frame wall if there is a four inch brick facing on the wall with 2 inch clearance to the stove

  50. Which one of the following is not included in a conventional forced hot water heating system?a. relief valve
    b. circulator pump
    c. sight glass
    d. aquastat
    e. expansion tank

  51. What condition is not a common indication of the possible failure of a heat exchanger?a. “dancing” burner flames
    b. concentrated areas of metal rust and flaking
    c. a damaged thermocouple
    d. a bulge in the wall of the heat exchanger
    e a “hot spot” on the external casing of the unit

  52. A relief valve on a hot water boiler should activate at what pressure?a. 10 psi
    b. 20 psi
    c. 30 psi
    d. 40 psi
    e. 50 psi

  53. The optimum distribution design for a forced hot air heating system in a house with slab construction would be:a. interior wall supply, interior wall return
    b. ceiling supply, floor return.
    c. high supply, high return
    d. central ceiling return, high interior wall supply
    e. exterior wall supply, interior wall return

  54. Combustion air provisions are most likely to be inadequate when:a. there is a forced draft system
    b. the heating unit is installed in a closet
    c. the unit is installed in a vented attic
    d. the combustion chamber has a fire brick liner
    e. the heating unit has PVC vent/piping

  55. A high pressure reading for a hot water boiler may indicate:a. faulty gauge
    b. expansion tank problem
    c. leakage of the immersion coils
    d. faulty pressure reducing valve
    e. all of the above

  56. Which of the following can lead to premature heat exchanger failed?a. humidifier leakage
    b. improper burner adjustment
    c. poor draft
    d. insufficient air flow over exchanger
    e. all of the above

  57. A system that extracts heat from air, water or the ground and moves it to the interior for heating is a :a. radiant convection heater
    b. heat exchanger
    c. heat pump
    d. evaporator system
    e. swamp heater

  58. In the normal cycling of a conventional furnace, at what temperature (degrees F) would the fan normally start operating, the burner shut down at high limit: and the fan shut off?a. 125, 75, 150
    b. 150,200, 100
    c. 175,125, 225
    d. 200,150,250
    e. 120,300,150

  59. A high efficiency (87 + %) gas fired furnace is likely to have a:a. PVC or CPVC exhaust vent
    b. galvanized exhaust
    c. a low water cutoff
    d. an atmospheric burner
    e. reversing valve

  60. What component must be installed in a steam heating system?a. aquastat
    b. circulating pump
    c. temperature-pressure relief valve
    d. fan-limit control
    e.low water cut-off

  61. Radiant hot water heating systems:a. do not require pipes
    b.can be installed using plastic piping
    c. rarely ever leak
    d. operate at very high pressures and temperatures
    e. can’t be installed in slab homes

  62. Which one of the following is a common cause for oil burner "purr-back"a. flame retention
    b. oxidation
    c. blue flame
    d. flame speed
    e. delayed ignition

  63. What type heating system commonly utilizes zone valves for independent heating of areas of a house?a. radiant electric
    b. forced warm air
    c. steam
    d. electric baseboard
    e. forced hot water

  64. Induced draft heating system designs utilize an electric powered fan to:a. ventilate the furnace room
    b. slow the rate of house air movement through a heat exchanger
    c. increase the rate of flue gases through a heat exchanger
    d. distribute heated air through two inch duct ductwork
    e. cmpensate for high flue temperatures

  65. If an old oil fired furnace is converted to a conventional mid-efficiency natural gas fired furnace:a. a new chimney must be constructed
    b. the existing chimney should be cleaned and checked for integrity and suitability for new system
    c. new distribution ductwork must always be installed
    d. the oil piping, but not oil tank, can be reused
    e. the chimney must be relined with an eight inch polybutlene flue

  66. A thermocouple will prevent a gas valve from:a. overheating if there is inadequate combustion air
    b. opening if a standing pilot goes out.
    c. malfunctioning if the gas pressure is to high
    d. shutting down if the thermostat settings haven’t been reached
    e. pumping in too rich a gas mixture

  67. What conditions may adversely affect the vent of a fuel burning heating system?a. chimney flue cross section too large
    b. long horizontal run to a vent connector
    c. multiple units connected to a single flue
    d. vent termination one foot above roof
    e. all of the above

  68. The absence of what AC system component(s) on the upper level two story home could result in uneven/poor cooling?a. low return, low supply
    b. electrostatic filter
    c. high return, high supply
    d. reversing valve
    e. low/high humidity limit controls

  69. What is the approximate BTU rating of a central air conditioning system with a high SEER rating and a listed RLA of 19.0 amps?a. 12,000
    b. 18,000
    c. 24,000
    d. 36,000
    e. 48,000

  70. The small warm refrigerant line which runs between an evaporator and condensing unit carries:a. liquid refrigerant to the condenser coil
    b. high pressure gas to the compressor
    c. gaseous freon to the condenser
    d. high pressure freon gas to the evaporator
    e. liquid refrigerant to the evaporator coil

  71. In a split central AC system, what component is generally located in the furnace/utility area or at an air handler in the attic?a. condenser
    b. compressor
    c. evaporator coil
    d. sump heater
    e. reversing valve

  72. The dryer in a refrigerant line of an A?C system:a. removes the moisture from the house air
    b. filters out contaminates
    c. is sometimes used in place of an expansion valve
    d. reduces the effects of external evaporation
    e. provides heat to prevent freon freeze-up

  73. AC units should not be operated in cold (<60 degrees F) outdoor temperature becausea. the evaporator coil will overheat
    b. the evaporator fan will freeze-up
    c. compressor damage may occur
    d. the compressor will split open
    e. the compressor will compensate for the inoperative fan

  74. The discharge temperature at the condenser should be:a. less than the ambient temperature
    b. equal to the ambient temperature
    c. higher than the ambient temperature
    d. equal to the indoor temperature
    e. always lower than the indoor air temperature

  75. As a general guide, the amperage a unit draws should be within what percentage to the rated amperage to be considered adequate?a. exactly the same as rated amperage
    b. within 10-20% of rated amperage
    c. within 20-30% of rated amperage
    d. within 40% of rated amperage
    e. depends on house age

  76. Operating an air conditioner on a humid 95 degree day, you would expect to find:a. air coming out of the registers at 60 degrees
    b. current draw at 50% of RLA listing
    c. no condensation draining from the evaporator pan
    d. roughly a 20 degree differential between the return and supply air temperatures
    e.shutdown due to crankcase heater failure

  77. What factor would usually not have a bearing on the rating of and AC system compressor?a. refrigerant gas line pressures
    b. measure of running amperage
    c. measure of crankcase heater voltage
    d. refrigerant gas line temperatures
    e. temperature differential across condenser coils

  78. Which one of the following upgrades is least likely to significantly improve the comfort and efficiency of an AC system?a. adding high returns
    b. improving attic ventilation
    c. insulating the compressor/condenser unit
    d. servicing a unit with a low freon charge
    e. replacing a totally dirty-clogged filter

  79. If and AC compressor was rated to run at 20 amps, and operating amperage was 40 amps, it would indicate:a. unit was operating at a very high efficiency
    b. no problems-normal reading
    c. unit may be about to seize up
    d. freon charge is slightly low
    e. cold air input would e too hot

  80. What is the normal temperature of the air from the heat ducts with a heat pump operating in the normal heating mode?a. 70-80 degrees F
    b. 90-100 degrees F
    c. 110-120 degrees F
    d. 120-130 degrees F
    e. 150+ degrees F

  81. In a well designed heat pump system, what size (cross-sectional area) are heat ducts in relation to a normal forced hot air furnace system?a. smaller
    b. same size
    c. larger
    d. depends on thermal valve
    e. depends on house size

  82. With a heat pump system, if it is 55 degrees outside and the hot air is coming out of the register at 100 degrees F (38 C) you can probably conclude, without visually checking the compressor, that:a. the compressor is functioning properly
    b. the resistance coils are operating
    c. the condenser is satisfactory
    d. the system is supplying heat to the house
    e. the reversing valve is not working

Sure. It will certainly impress your congressman.

Since some answers are the result of interpretation, you could have flagged the right answers. :wink:

Send me your email address and I will forward all that I have…

:wink:

2 Likes

If one could memorize 980 answers, they deserve a passing grade. Being that there’s less than 200 questions on the test and 20 or 30 of those are State Law and SOP related.

There are no state law or SOP related questions on the NHIE.:roll:

how do you know that …?

There is in Illinois. I took one…:shock:

Not the NHIE I took.

There is separate state test for WI law with regard to home inspectors.

Jim, as others have stated there are a couple of variations on the NHIE theme.

Regards

Gerry

The major categories are shown below, along with the
approximate percentage of the 190 questions associated
with the category. A detailed content outline is included on
pages 15-20 of this handbook.

Home Inspector Examination for Illinois Examination Specifications Major Category %

  1. Inspection Methods 26%
  2. Building Systems 37%
  3. Reporting 25%
  4. Professional Practice 4%
  5. Illinois Law and Rules 8%

Total 100%

[FONT=JuliusBlack][size=5]EXAMINATION INFORMATION

This handbook contains general information regarding the
Home Inspector Examination developed by the EBPHI.
The EBPHI is an independent examination organization
whose objective is to promote excellence and exemplary
practice within the home inspection profession and to
serve the public through its quality assurance efforts.

[/size][/FONT]

http://www.goamp.com/DOCUMENTS/pdf/HANDBOOKS/IL-Home-Inspector-handbook.pdf

I took & passed the NHIE in Massachusetts and there were no questions on any “State Laws”.

Which “NHIE” did you take?
The “ASHI” Version or the “EBPHI” Version?

:smiley:

Jim,

Noel Zak flew into New Hampshire to pitch her “Independent” test to our legislators.

If you and any other member will E-mail what questions and answers that you have I can use them to refute her testimony about NO ONE having the Q & A. to their tests.

I need this information BEFORE the 16th!!!

I hope you are right, Gerry.

That would assist those in arguing against it and its claims of being scientifically evaluated and consistently applied, nationally. If I take it in Missouri (no license/no SOP), you take it in Florida (license/no SOP), and Christopher takes it in Illinois (license/SOP)…we are taking three very different tests.

Interesting.